This probably wasn't answered because the question is probably more suited for https://quant.stackexchange.com/ .
Either way, it depends on how they are calculating Implied Volatility; however, you are right that in theory it shouldn't be necessary.
I'm sure you know, but the Implied Volatility is not the same as the realized volatility, sigma, you are referring to. The Implied Volatility is "the volatility implied by the option prices observed in the market" (Hull, 341).
It is essentially the volatility that makes the Black-Scholes-Merton Formula true.
I haven't look around in the actual code, and their documentation isn't great; but I would guess it's likely used as a starting point to reduce the number of iterations required to find the Implied Vol.
Edit: I just read through the source code, and you are right: sigma isn't used at all in the calculation of implied volatility.